[TheSandmanRo]

No: badbeats can only occur after you or the other guy put all the money in the pot and the one with the better hand AT THAT POINT loses.

My friend, why don't ou want to understand that your chances of winning were 90%? If you liked those odd, well, then I rest my case.
You were somewhat unlucky that the fish hit the flop? yes
Should he have folded? Maybe yes, maybe no. He had GREAT implied odds. If he put you two guys on two high pairs (JJ or abuve) or overcards (AK, AQ), he knew that if he'd hit the flop he could slowplay you and clean you out. as simple as it is. As I said, I think that he had put one blind in the pot before your raise (either big blind or limp) and after that he had to call 3 blinds in order to fight for a pot of 9.5 or 10 blinds. Most of the trash flops would make his hand somehow and all those flops would ver much tempt you to move allin in order to protect your great hand (which you actually did). Here's some of them: any 22X, any 33X, any 23X, any A45, 456.
You, on the other hand, considered you are the man and didn't think you could lose. You ruled out some obvious hands (A3s, 55, even 34s) and you never thought about WHY would he try and bluff you out of such a pot, in that phase of the tourney, with one player already allin and with you nearly committed (as a fact, it usually is futile trying to bluff a committed player out of a pot). Furthermore, that 4bb raise was too small. With KK you don't want to be in a pot with any hand but premium. You had a short stack to your left, who was probably waiting for a hand to move allin. You raise 20k, or 24k preflop and you can be almost certain that only a pair or some high hand (AK, AQ, AJ, MAYBE KQ) will call. You simply put him on QQ and never reconsidered that.

Better luck next time.